FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot (Drone)

Correct: The security policy is the foundation of a management system. It establishes the organization’s security goals and documents management’s commitment to providing the necessary resources and leadership for a safe environment.

Incorrect: Focusing only on technical instructions for equipment maintenance describes operational manuals rather than a high-level security policy. The strategy of using the policy as a tactical response guide confuses the overarching policy with specific emergency procedures. Opting for a confidential financial tracking tool ignores the essential role of communicating security expectations to all staff.

Takeaway: A security policy defines management’s commitment and the organizational framework for maintaining aviation security standards.

Correct: High density altitude results in thinner air, which provides fewer air molecules for the wings to deflect to create lift. Consequently, the aircraft must travel at a higher true airspeed to generate the same lift as it would in denser air, leading to a longer takeoff roll. Additionally, the engine produces less power and the propeller is less efficient in thin air, which further compounds the risk by reducing the rate of climb.

Correct: The Maximum Elevation Figure (MEF) is calculated by the FAA to show the highest point of terrain or the tallest obstacle within a quadrangle. This provides pilots with a simplified reference to ensure they remain at a safe altitude above all known features in that geographic block.

Incorrect: Relying on this figure for VOR signal reception is incorrect because navigation signal strength depends on altitude and distance from the transmitter rather than terrain height. The strategy of using this number for magnetic variation is a mistake as variation is indicated by dashed magenta isogonic lines. Focusing on the number of airfields is a misinterpretation of chart data because airport locations are indicated by individual circular symbols rather than a single large number.

Correct: Operating near the aft CG limit reduces the static longitudinal stability of the aircraft because the distance between the CG and the neutral point is minimized. This results in a shorter moment arm for the horizontal stabilizer, making it more difficult for the pilot to recover from a stall or spin as the nose becomes harder to lower.

Correct: When a pilot identifies a track error using pilotage, the most effective technique is to choose a future point on the intended path and calculate a new heading that accounts for the actual wind drift to intercept that point.

Incorrect: Choosing to turn 90 degrees toward the track is inefficient and may lead to overshooting the course or losing orientation. The strategy of increasing power does not correct the directional error and may lead to exceeding aircraft performance limits or fuel exhaustion. Relying solely on timing while ignoring a known position deviation is a dangerous practice that often leads to becoming completely lost.

Correct: Dead reckoning is the navigation technique of calculating one’s current position by using a previously determined point (a fix) and advancing that position based upon known or estimated speeds over a certain elapsed time and on a specific heading. In the United States, the FAA considers this a core competency for VFR pilots to ensure they can navigate when visual references or electronic aids are unavailable.

Correct: The troposphere is the layer of the atmosphere closest to the Earth’s surface, extending to roughly 36,000 feet in mid-latitudes. It is where almost all weather occurs and is defined by a standard temperature lapse rate of 2 degrees Celsius per 1,000 feet of altitude gain.

Correct: Under 14 CFR Part 91, the pilot in command is responsible for seeing and avoiding other aircraft when weather conditions permit, regardless of whether the flight is conducted under VFR or IFR. While Air Traffic Control provides traffic advisories to VFR aircraft on a workload-permitting basis, this does not relieve the pilot of the duty to maintain a vigilant lookout for other traffic to prevent collisions.

Incorrect: Relying on the controller to provide mandatory heading changes is incorrect because ATC separation services in Class E are not provided to VFR aircraft. Simply descending to change cruising altitudes does not fulfill the immediate requirement to visually identify and avoid conflicting traffic. The strategy of yielding right-of-way based on the other aircraft’s flight plan type is invalid as right-of-way rules are determined by aircraft category and position, not filing status.

Takeaway: VFR pilots are always responsible for visual separation from other aircraft, regardless of any radar advisories received from air traffic control.

Correct: According to Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) standards for Class G airspace below 1,200 feet AGL during the day, pilots are permitted to operate with 1 statute mile of visibility provided they remain clear of clouds.

Incorrect: Simply conducting flight with three miles of visibility and specific vertical distances is incorrect because those standards apply to controlled airspace or nighttime operations. The strategy of using one-mile visibility with horizontal cloud clearance fails to recognize the clear of clouds allowance for low-altitude daytime flight. Focusing only on five miles of visibility and significant vertical clearance is unnecessary for this altitude and is typically reserved for high-altitude flight where speeds are much greater.

Takeaway: VFR pilots must identify airspace classifications to apply the correct visibility and cloud clearance minimums for safe flight operations.

Correct: The magnetic compass experiences acceleration errors on East and West headings because the compass card is weighted to counteract magnetic dip. When the aircraft speeds up, inertia causes the card to tilt and rotate, creating a false indication of a turn toward the north. A fluxgate compass system avoids these mechanical issues by using a remote magnetometer to sense the magnetic field and electronically stabilize the heading information.

Correct: An aft CG reduces the static longitudinal stability of the aircraft because the distance between the CG and the center of lift is minimized. This makes the aircraft more sensitive to control inputs and significantly complicates stall or spin recovery, as the nose is harder to lower.

Incorrect: Relying on the idea that stability increases with an aft loading is incorrect because stability is actually compromised as the CG moves rearward. Simply assuming that an aft CG increases resistance to spins is dangerous as it actually makes recovery much more difficult. Focusing on greater stability around the lateral axis is a fundamental misunderstanding of how CG placement affects aircraft balance. Choosing to believe that over-rotation risk is reduced ignores the increased elevator sensitivity and rearward weight bias.

Correct: Reducing the power setting lowers the fuel consumption rate, which directly extends the time the aircraft can remain airborne. At the lower airspeed associated with reduced power, the aircraft experiences less parasite drag, which often results in a more efficient distance-to-fuel ratio.

Incorrect: The strategy of expecting an increase in airspeed or climb rate is incorrect because reducing power directly decreases the energy available for performance. Focusing only on reducing flight time is a misconception since lower power results in a lower true airspeed and longer duration. Opting for the idea that lower power causes overheating is flawed because reduced combustion heat and fuel flow generally lead to cooler engine operation.

Correct: FDC NOTAMs are issued by the National Flight Data Center and are regulatory in nature. They cover changes to Instrument Approach Procedures, aeronautical charts, and the implementation of Temporary Flight Restrictions.

Correct: Induced drag is created by the production of lift and is highest at low speeds where a high angle of attack is necessary. Parasitic drag, which includes skin friction and form drag, increases significantly as the aircraft moves faster through the air.

Incorrect: The strategy of suggesting parasitic drag decreases at higher velocities contradicts the basic principles of fluid resistance. Simply assuming both drag components increase during acceleration fails to account for the reduction in induced drag at higher speeds. Opting for the belief that induced drag remains constant ignores its fundamental dependence on the angle of attack and lift coefficient.

Takeaway: Total drag is the sum of induced drag, which decreases with speed, and parasitic drag, which increases with speed.

Correct: When the pneumatic system fails, vacuum-driven instruments like the attitude indicator and heading indicator will lose accuracy and eventually tumble. The pilot must recognize the failure and transition to instruments that operate on different systems, such as the electrically-driven turn coordinator and the magnetic compass, to maintain aircraft control.

Incorrect: The strategy of adjusting the mixture control is ineffective because the vacuum pump is a mechanical component not cooled by the fuel-air ratio. Opting to descend for higher air density will not restore pressure to a failed mechanical pump or a system with a significant leak. Choosing to reset a circuit breaker is a misunderstanding of the system, as standard pneumatic vacuum pumps are engine-driven mechanical components rather than electrical ones.

Correct: Rime ice is characterized by the instantaneous freezing of small, supercooled water droplets as they strike the aircraft, which traps air and creates a rough, opaque deposit.

Incorrect: Describing large droplets that flow over the wing surface before freezing refers to the formation of clear ice, which is typically found in warmer temperatures or cumuliform clouds. Focusing on the deposition of water vapor in clear air describes the process of frost formation rather than structural icing from visible moisture. Opting for flight through rain in temperatures well above freezing describes conditions where ice cannot form on the airframe.

Correct: Maximum endurance is defined as the maximum time an aircraft can remain airborne. This is achieved by operating at the airspeed that requires the minimum power to maintain level flight, thereby resulting in the lowest possible fuel flow rate.

Incorrect: Focusing on the best L/D ratio speed is a strategy for maximum range, which prioritizes distance over time. Opting to climb for higher true airspeed increases ground speed but does not minimize the fuel flow rate required to remain airborne. Choosing a high-power cruise setting, even with a lean mixture, results in a significantly higher fuel consumption rate than the minimum power setting.

Correct: Establishing personal minimums that are more conservative than regulatory requirements and identifying alternate airports are effective countermeasures that manage threats before they lead to pilot error. This proactive approach aligns with the FAA’s Risk Management Handbook, which emphasizes identifying external threats like weather and internal threats like fatigue to prevent an undesired aircraft state.

Correct: Radiation fog forms when the ground radiates heat into the atmosphere on clear nights, cooling the surface and the air immediately above it. When the temperature of this air drops to its dew point, moisture condenses into fog. This process is most effective under calm or light wind conditions, as stronger winds would mix the air and prevent the localized cooling necessary for fog to develop.

Incorrect: Relying solely on the movement of air masses leads to the incorrect conclusion of advection fog, which requires horizontal transport over a cold surface. The strategy of assuming upslope fog is flawed because it necessitates a significant incline in terrain to force air upward for cooling. Opting for a steam fog explanation is incorrect as that requires cold air to pass over a warm water source, which is not the mechanism described in the cooling of the ground surface.

Takeaway: Radiation fog requires clear skies, light winds, and a small temperature-dew point spread to form overnight.